10 Practical Lessons on the Christian Life

 

"To the Jew First" is According to Prophecy not Mystery

      Many of the Mid Acts Dispensational position are critical of the Acts 2 Dispensational position, because Acts 2 Dispensationalists mix prophecy (i.e. the events on the Day of Pentecost) with the Mystery Program.  I have no problem with this accusation, because it is true that Acts 2 Dispensationalists mix prophecy with mystery.  My problem is I see the Mid Acts position also mixing prophecy and mystery.  For example, the practice by Paul of "to the Jew first," in the book of Acts is according to prophecy and not the mystery, yet the Mid Acts proponents insist the mystery starts at either Acts 9 or Acts 13 at the latest.  It is evident is studying the Old Testament prophets that Israel was to get saved first, and then they were to be a witness to the Gentiles.  

For example, Isaiah 60:1-3 states:

[1] Arise, shine; for thy light is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee.
[2] For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee.
[3] And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising.

When the Mid Acts proponents are confronted with this, many will say that this practice of "to the Jew first" was just transitory during the early part of the book of Acts.  My question would be, What if an Acts 2 Dispensationalist argues that the things happening on the Day of Pentecost in Acts 2 were transitory during the early part of the book of Acts? Would the Mid Acts proponent accept this explanation?  My guess, based on studying Mid Acts Dispensationalism, is they would not accept this explanation from an Acts 2 Dispensationalist.

For the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, he has another problem in that "to the Jew first" was not just during the early part of the book of Acts.  It was all the way to Acts 28!  Right before Paul got to Rome he writes,  "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Romans 1:16).

     In conclusion, I would argue that the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, in order to be consistent has two or at most 3 options.  First, he has the option of allowing the Acts 2 Dispensationalists to use the same explanation as the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, "Acts is a transitional book" for an excuse to mix prophecy and mystery.  A second option proposed by a few Mid Acts people would be to argue that during Acts both the prophecy program and mystery program ran concurrently all the way to the end of Acts when Israel is set aside in judicial blindness in Acts 28:25-31.  Some refer to option 2 as the "overlap position."  If the Mid Acts Dispensationalists rejects both options one and two,  then he must concede that the details of the mystery are not revealed until after Acts 28.

It is Time to Drop the Slogan "Romans through Philemon"

      Many "Grace Believers" claim their mail and doctrine is only found in the books of Romans through Philemon.  I have in the past shared this sentiment, but I no longer agree with using this slogan.  Why?  I am going to answer the question with a question.  Did the Apostle Paul say that the Grace Believers' mail and doctrine was only in Romans through Philemon?

Paul says in 2 Timothy 3:

[16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: [17] That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Note that Paul does not chant off the slogan "Romans through Philemon."  Paul says all scripture is profitable for doctrine, etc.  All scripture is Genesis through Revelation!  As Grace Believers all the Bible is our mail, and we have to study and rightly divide all of it to determine what applies doctrinally to us under the mystery program.  

     In considering this matter, take the Gospel of John for an example.  Many Grace Believers say John is not my mail, because it is not in "Romans through Philemon."  I understand that John contains much "kingdom doctrine" that does not line up with the dispensation of grace; however, there are some truths in John that match the preaching of Paul.  John 20:31 states, " But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name."  Many Grace Believers will read this verse and say John is "Jewish," since it is talking about believing Jesus is Christ.  This argument is their proof that John is not for them.  The strangest thing happens when these same people read Acts 18:5.  It states, "And when Silas and Timotheus were come from Macedonia, Paul was pressed in the spirit, and testified to the Jews that Jesus was Christ."  At this point these same people, who claim the "mystery" started in Acts 9 or at the latest Acts 13, make excuses for Paul preaching the same thing John preached!  If John 20 is not for Grace Believers because it is speaking about believing that Jesus is the Christ, then Acts 18 can not be for Grace Believers either because it is the same message!  Keep in mind Paul not only used the title, "Christ" in Acts but he used the title numerous times in Romans through Philemon!  John 20:31 not only states to believe Jesus is the "Christ," but it also states to believe Jesus is "the Son of God."  As a Grace Believer I can take this part of John and doctrinally apply it to me!  The title, "Son of God" definitely matches the revelation of the mystery doctrine.  Ephesians 4:13 states, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:"  John 20:31 also makes it clear that believing results in spiritual life.  This doctrinal truth also matches mystery doctrine, for 2 Timothy 1:1 states, "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, according to the promise of life which is in Christ Jesus."

     For those Grace Believers who still hold to the slogan, "Romans through Philemon," I would encourage you to start following Paul (rather than your favorite Grace Teacher/Preacher) in that All Scripture is Profitable for doctrine, etc.  Once you start studying and rightly dividing all Scripture, you will find there is much doctrine for the Grace Believer outside of Romans through Philemon.  Yes, doing this will require much more time studying and less time in worldly entertainment, but it is what God requires under Grace!

Lessons From Judas Iscariot

 

“Lessons from Judas Iscariot”

Text:  John 6:70-71 states:

[70] Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? [71] He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being one of the twelve.

 

I.                     Introduction

A.      Judas Iscariot is probably best known as the disciple that betrayed Jesus

B.      There are several false ideas and teachings based on Judas Iscariot

C.      There is an interesting hypothesis that Judas will come back in the future 7 Year Tribulation as the “Antichrist”

II.                   Lessons from Judas Iscariot

A.       Judas is not an example of a believer losing salvation, for he was never saved to begin with.  Jesus referred to him in the present tense as “a devil.”  John 6:70 states, “…Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?”  Judas did not become a devil after sinning, but he was one from the beginning!

B.      Some use Matthew 26:24, which states, (“The Son of man goeth as it is written of him: but woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born”) to falsely teach Judas had no “freewill” in betraying Christ, since this event was prophesied.  Some in doing this imply that Judas’ betrayal of Jesus was God’s fault.  In considering Matthew 26:24 keep in mind the following:

1.       God is able to accomplish His will in the fact that He foreknows what man will do in his freewill.  Acts 2:22-23 states: “[22] Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: [23] Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:”

2.       The blame for Judas’ action is to be placed on his wicked heat (John 13:1-2) and his willingness to be used of Satan (Luke 22:1-3).

C.      Judas’ was willing to be used of Satan because his heart was concerned with material things rather than spiritual things.  Consider the following:

1.       Judas complained that costly ointment was “wasted on Jesus” rather than be sold.  John 12:4-6 states: “[4] Then saith one of his disciples, Judas Iscariot, Simon's son, which should betray him, [5] Why was not this ointment sold for three hundred pence, and given to the poor?  [6] This he said, not that he cared for the poor; but because he was a thief, and had the bag, and bare what was put therein.”

2.       After Judas complains about the ointment above Matthew 26:14-16 states: “[14] Then one of the twelve, called Judas Iscariot, went unto the chief priests, [15] And said unto them, What will ye give me, and I will deliver him unto you? And they covenanted with him for thirty pieces of silver. [16] And from that time he sought opportunity to betray him.

3.       Judas’ main motivation in being a “disciple” was for material wealth and not spiritual wealth!

D.      Judas is a prime example of the fact that having “power” to perform miracles does not necessarily equate with being “of God.”  Matthew 10:5-8 states that Judas along with the other 11 disciples had power to heal the sick and raise the dead!

E.       Judas is also proof that “partaking of Christ” in the “Lord’s Supper” does not equate with salvation.  Matthew 26:17-27 speaks of the supper and verse 20 makes it perfectly clear that Judas also was a partaker.  It would be rightly assumed that Judas was also water baptized, since that was what was required to be a disciple during Christ’ earthly ministry, yet that did not save Judas either!

F.       The preaching of Jesus and his disciples was concerning the gospel of the Kingdom, and this kingdom would have been realized if Israel had “received it.”  Judas, of course, wanted the material blessings of a kingdom, but rejected the spiritual blessings that it offered. 

1.        Matthew 11:13-14 states: “[13] For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. [14] And if ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.  According to prophecy Elijah was to come before the Kingdom would be set up.

2.       Prophecy also spoke of an “Antichrist” that would come on the world scene before the kingdom would be setup.  Whoever this “Antichrist” is, will have control over the finances of the world.  Revelation 13:17 states, “And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.”

G.      What about the hypothesis that states Judas Iscariot is the “Antichrist?”  Are there any valid Biblical arguments for this?

1.       This future “Antichrist” is called the “son of perdition according to 2 Thes. 2:3

2.       Jesus referred to Judas as the “son of perdition” in John 17:12. It states, “While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.”

3.       If Israel had repented during the earthly ministry of Christ, then the “son of perdition” (Judas Iscariot) was certainly there on the scene.

4.       Israel of course rejected the Kingdom and had Jesus crucified.  Jesus’ prayer on the cross (Luke 23:34) bought Israel another opportunity to receive the Kingdom in early Acts.  The Kingdom was rejected again with Israel’s stoning of Stephen in Acts 7.  Stephen prayed a prayer (Acts 7:60) similar to Christ on the cross, and as a result Stephen bought Israel more time to receive the Kingdom (until Acts 28).

5.       In Acts 28 the Kingdom is preached to Israel one last time by Paul to the “chief Jews,” but the message is rejected for a final time.   

6.       With Israel’s rejection of the Kingdom message in Acts 28, the Kingdom is put on hold as well as the coming of the “Antichrist.” 

7.       At some point in the future, the mystery dispensation will end with the rapture, and God will again give Israel another opportunity to receive the Kingdom during the tribulation period. 

8.       The “Antichrist” (also called the beast) will ascend out of the bottomless pit during the tribulation in an attempt to thwart God’s plan of the Kingdom.  Some believe that this “Antichrist” will be a return of Judas Iscariot based on:

a.       When Judas died the Bible says he went to his “own place.” (see Acts 1:16-25)

b.       Revelation 17:8 describes the beast (Antichrist) as someone that lived in the past, but died, and yet will come up out of the bottomless pit.  This description could certainly fit Judas Iscariot. 

III.                  Conclusion

A.      Judas is an example of a false believer who only “followed” Jesus for what he could get materially.  Judas had no interest in the spiritual things of God.

B.      There are some strong arguments to indicate that Judas may literally return in the future in the person of the Antichrist/Beast.  The question of Judas being or not being the Antichrist is a very interesting study, but one’s answer to the question is not one to break fellowship over.

 

 

Are Saved Gentiles in Acts 15 Part of the Mystery Program/Dispensation?

      Since Acts 15 deals with the salvation of Gentiles, many assume that these Gentiles are becoming part of the mystery program/dispensation which is written about in Ephesians and Colossians.  There is some debate among right dividers as to Cornelius's position as a saved Gentile.  The Dr Peter Ruckman camp of right dividers include Cornelius in the "mystery body of Christ" along with the Gentile converts of Paul mentioned in Acts 14:27.  Most of the Mid Acts Right Dividers exclude Cornelius from the mystery body of Christ, because he was converted under the preaching of Peter in Acts 10, and their position is Cornelius is a saved Gentile under the Kingdom Program.  My argument is that all Gentiles mentioned in Acts 15 are saved under the "Kingdom Program Offer," the only difference being that Paul preached to them the gospel of the un-circumcision which was a grace message of believing on Christ (with no observance of the Law required).  Paul even says in Romans 11 that saved Gentiles in the Acts period were graffed into Israel (i.e. the olive tree, compare Jer 11:16 with Romans 11:13-17).  I am aware that many Right Dividers object by saying that Romans 11 just refers to Gentiles receiving the blessings of Israel.  I agree that the Gentiles partake of Israel's "root and fatness," but you can not choose to ignore the same part of this verse that says these Gentiles are graffed in among them (the "them" is Israel)!  In Acts 15 there is no distinction given between the Gentiles saved under Paul and the Gentiles saved under Peter (Cornelius and his household).  Nowhere in Acts 15 does Paul say that Gentiles saved under his ministry are part of a different group or body than Cornelius and his household.  The collective salvation of all these Gentiles mentioned in Acts 15 is said to be in agreement with the prophecy program (Acts 15:14-18).  Paul even says his preaching to the Gentiles in Acts was a command according to prophecy (see Acts 13:47 and Isaiah 49:6).  Acts 13:47 states, "For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth."  Many right dividers get around Paul quoting Isaiah 49:6 by saying Paul is just making spiritual application in his quotation.  For those that say this, I think the burden of proof is on them to prove that this passage should not be taken literally.  If the Gentiles saved under Paul in Acts 15 were under the mystery dispensation, then Paul would have objected to the statement that their salvation was in agreement with the prophecy program, since the mystery program is not revealed in prophecy.  Paul's actions further prove that these saved Gentiles are under the "Kingdom Program Offer" when he does not object to the "necessary things" (Acts 15:28-29) as decrees for the saved Gentiles to follow.  Acts 16:1-4 states the following:

 [1] Then came he to Derbe and Lystra: and, behold, a certain disciple was there, named Timotheus, the son of a certain woman, which was a Jewess, and believed; but his father was a Greek:
[2] Which was well reported of by the brethren that were at Lystra and Iconium.
[3] Him would Paul have to go forth with him; and took and circumcised him because of the Jews which were in those quarters: for they knew all that his father was a Greek.
[4] And as they went through the cities, they delivered them the decrees for to keep, that were ordained of the apostles and elders which were at Jerusalem.

There is no way this observing of ceremonial decrees as "necessary things" can be part of the mystery dispensation of Colossians.   Paul states in Colossians 2:16, "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink..."  One of the necessary things in Acts 15:29 had to do with restrictions on diet.  Acts 15:29 is a direct contradiction of Colossians 2:16.  Although the Gentiles in Acts 15 were saved under a grace message (gospel of the un-circumcision), there were ceremonial decrees they had to follow not for salvation but for testimony sake.  If right dividers would ever accept the fact that the Kingdom Offer to Israel extends all the way to the end of Acts, then many "problem passages" in Acts and Paul's early Epistles would clear themselves up.