Grace was No Mystery

      Some right dividers seem to think "grace" is part of the "mystery" that was hidden in past ages and not revealed until Paul wrote about it.  It is true that the mystery is mentioned in the context of the dispensation of the grace of God in Ephesians 3, but grace is not defined as the mystery.  The mystery is defined as the believing Gentiles becoming fellowheirs and of the same body with the believing Jews.  Ephesians 3:1-6 states:

[1] For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles,
[2] If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to youward:
[3] How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,
[4] Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
[5] Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
[6] That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

     In past ages was grace hidden or just the mystery?   I would argue that grace is found from Genesis through Revelation.  Grace was not hidden in the Old Testament, the Gospels or Acts.  In time past it certainly was not what I would call "pure grace," since in the Old Testament Israel was under the Law yet still often "found grace."  Consider Noah, he found grace in the Old Testament before the Law was given (see Gen 6:8).  Under the Law, Moses and Israel find grace in God's eyes (for example see Exodus 33).  In the 4 Gospels "grace" shows up in the person of Jesus Christ (see John 1:17).  Peter says the Old Testament prophesied of "grace" that was to come at the revelation of Jesus Christ (see 1 Pet 1:10-13).  Peter is probably referring to Zech 12:10 in speaking of grace being prophesied.

"And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn."

     In light of the above it is possible for "grace" to exist outside of the "revelation of the mystery."  Understanding this principle will help the right divider to better understand the book of Acts.  Even with Paul's ministry, Acts seems to be a mixture of grace and law just like in the Old Testament and the 4 Gospels.  In light of this, I would argue that either the Acts 28 position is correct in that the "Mystery" of the one body of Ephesians along with the Dispensation of Grace does not begin until after Acts 28 or there is an overlapping of the Kingdom Program and Mystery Program in which Paul ministers under both programs depending on his audience in Acts.  Some of the "Mid Acts" brethren have recognized the "problem" in Acts, but offer no consistent solution.  For example, J C O'hair states in an article To Be or Not Be Baptized, "Water baptism has no place in the message of pure grace as it had in Mark 16:16." This article can be found in the Berean Searchlight at https://bereanbiblesociety.org/to-be-or-not-to-be-baptized.  O'hair believed this along with most Mid Acts Dispensationalists, yet at the same time insisted that Paul always preached "Pure Grace" and not the Kingdom Gospel.  If O'hair was still living I would like to ask how he thinks Paul managed to preach "pure grace" while practicing water baptism through at least Acts 18 in light of the fact he said it could not be done in the above article?