Can John 3:16 be used to Present the Gospel under Grace

The Last Pilcrow (Paragraph Mark) in the King James Bible

      There are several theories as to why there are no more paragraph marks (pilcrows) in the King James Bible after Acts 20:36.  Did the typesetters just run out of pilcrows at Acts 20:36?  Did the translators decide that the paragraph marks were not necessary for the remainder of the Bible?  Was God supernaturally involved in there being no more pilcrows after Acts 20:36?  Since I can't speak for the King James translators or for God, then I can not give a dogmatic answer to these questions.  I have read a few King James Bible believers that say something to the effect that God prevented more pilcrows from being used after Acts 20:36 to signify that doctrine is "fixed" at this point for the "church age."  I too am a King James Bible believer, but I can't dogmatically state this is the reason for no more pilcrows, but it is an interesting idea and one I am tempted to embrace.  

     If you have read some of my past blog posts, then you know I take an "Acts 20" position in contrast to the Acts 2, Mid Acts, and Acts 28 Dispensational positions.  If doctrine is fixed at Acts 20, then would it not make sense to take the "Acts 20" position?  My Acts 20 position in summary is Paul received a different gospel for the uncircumcision (Gentiles) as compared to the gospel of the circumcision during the Acts period.  Paul even describes this as being a time called the Dispensation of the Gospel (1 Cor 9:17).  I believe Israel still had a chance of repenting of their unbelief and receiving the Kingdom all the way through the book of Acts (see Rom 11:23).  Paul would go to the Jew first with the message of what the Messiah accomplished on the cross and he held out hope for the national salvation of Israel and the setting up of the Kingdom all the way through the Acts period.  His prayer was, "Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved" (Romans 10:1).  During Acts Paul went to the Jew first with this message, and when they rejected it he would then go to the Gentiles with the gospel of the uncircumcsion.  The gospel of the uncircumcision was the grace message of the cross for salvation, without having to keep the Law, but with the caveat that Gentiles had to observe a diet not offensive to the Jews (see Acts 15-16:4).  The Gentiles saved during the Acts period were graffed into Israel (Rom 11:1-24) and became "one body" with the saved Jews (1 Cor 12:13).  The saved Jews continued in their ceremonial observances of the Law, not for salvation, but for memorials which would be done in the Millennial Temple described in Ezekiel 40-48.  Remember if Israel had received their Messiah during the first century, then Millennial Kingdom would have also been setup during the first century and the saved Jews and the graffed in Gentiles would have enjoyed the Millennial Kingdom together as prophesied in the Old Testament prophets.  

     At Acts 20 Paul's Acts ministry to the Jew first in the synagogues ends.  It is also about this same time Paul writes the book of Romans and mentions the "mystery" for the first time (Rom 16:25), but he gives no details of what it entails until his prison epistles.  The reason no details of the mystery are given in Romans is because the nation of Israel has to reject one final time the Kingdom offer in Acts 28 before the Dispensation of the Mystery (Col 1:25-26) can begin.  In Acts 20, with the last pilcrow, Paul gives a message is to the Ephesians.  Guess where Paul gives the details of the Dispensation of the Mystery?  The prison Epistle to the Ephesians after the Acts period is over!  It is in Ephesians 2:19 that the Gentiles are said to be fellow citizens with the believing Jews.  It is in Ephesians 3:6 that the Gentiles are said to be fellowheirs with believing Jews.  The mystery was not just being in "one body" which was true during the Acts period.  The Dispensation of the Mystery made Gentiles "equals."  A "fellow" is an equal.  A fellow citizen has no more rights or privileges than another citizen.  During the Acts period the Gentiles were in "one body," but the Jews were first and had special privileges the Gentiles did not have.  The Gentiles were not equal to the Jews during the Acts period.  Also with the revelation of the mystery the Gentiles were no longer required to worry about offending the Jews with their diet (see Col 2:16).  With Israel being pronounced in judicial blindness at Acts 28, the details of the Mystery are finally given in the prison epistles of Ephesians and Colossians.  I don't believe a new body begins at Acts 28 like some teach, but I believe the existing "one body" of saved Jews and Gentiles from the Acts period come under a new dispensation called the Mystery.  

     I don't know how much stock we can put in definitions given by AI, but AI describes the pilcrow as being "used to signify a change in actions or a transition to a new event."  A change to a new event is certainly on the horizon at Acts 20:36.  During the time of Acts 20 Paul wrote the last pre-prison epistle, Romans, and mentions the "Mystery" without giving the details of what it meant.  Shortly after Acts 20 Israel will reject the gospel one last time, and with that Paul reveals the new dispensational "rules" of the mystery.   For me the Acts 20 Dispensational Position is much more consistent than the Acts 2 and Mid Acts positions in trying to reconcile what is said in the book of Acts and the pre-Acts 28 Epistles of Paul.  The Acts 20 position also provides a separation from the Acts 28 Dispensatonalists of which some fall into extreme positions such as soul sleep, rejecting the doctrine of hell, denying the Trinity, and discounting the importance of a local church.

Can John 1:17 Refer to the Dispensation of Grace?

      I just finished watching a fairly well known Mid Acts Dispensationalist (I want mention his name, so I can't be accused of trying to use his name to get people to read my blog) speak about errors in study Bibles, and he specifically referenced the 1917 Scofield Study Bible.  One of the so called "serious" errors he pointed out was the Scofield note # 5 at Genesis 1:28.  In that note Scofield lists the name of the different dispensations and gives a Bible reference for each.  This particular Mid Acts Dispensationalist says Scofield is in serious error by listing "Grace" with the Bible reference of John 1:17.  His argument is since the Dispensation of Grace was given to Paul, then John 1:17 could not refer to the Dispensation of Grace.  I don't think I see the "serious error" this brother believes Scofield made.  Scofield says John was written between 85-90 AD.  I personally think this is late, and I would date it before the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD.  As long as John 1:17 was written after Paul received the dispensation of Grace, then there is no error at all with the Scofield note.  Does this brother think that John never knew about the Dispensation of Grace?  Does this brother think Paul was the only one that could write about the Dispensation of Grace?  This brother, like many right dividers, says that our doctrine must only come from Romans through Philemon, and nothing else can be used to form our doctrinal statement.  One finds out very quickly that these particular believers have a serious problem of their own.  It is called inconsistency!

     The above brother I mentioned above who has a problem with John 1:17 referring to the Dispensation of Grace also has a video on "Does one have to be born again during the dispensation of grace?"  This brother's motto of only Romans through Philemon goes straight out the window at this point!  Guess what?  Paul never uses the term "born again!"  You can vainly search Romans through Philemon and the term is not there.  The term "born again" is only used three times in the King James Bible (John 3:3, John 3:7, and 1 Peter 1:23).  If you watch this video, then you will find out from this brother that it is fine to use the term "born again,"  although Paul never does.  In essence the non Pauline book of John is not good enough for this brother at John 1:17 to refer to the dispensation of Grace, but since he likes the term, born again, he will allow the John 3:3 and John 3:7 to apply to the Dispensation of Grace.  As a footnote, I have no problem using the term "born again" in a devotional way to refer to a saved person under Grace, but I would qualify it by saying John 3:3 and 3:7 are doctrinal references to Israel being born again in the future.  I believe a more Scriptural motto for Grace Believers would be, "All Scripture (Genesis to Revelation) is profitable for doctrine as long as it is rightly divided in light of the revelation of the mystery given to Paul in Ephesians and Colossians.  

    

Romans 16:25 Gives No Details of "The Mystery"

      Although I am a dispensationalist, I do not label myself as either Acts 2, Mid Acts, or an Acts 28 Dispensationalist.  For me, I see God's revelation progressing all the way through the book of Acts.  I do not see a good place to "park" anywhere in the book of Acts as far as a "doctrinal boundary" is concerned.  My position is all scripture is profitable for doctrine as 2 Tim 3:16 states.  A "workman" has to rightly divide all scripture, and these divisions are not straight lines like the Acts 2, Mid Acts, or Acts 28ers would have you believe.  Some of the Acts 28ers believe that Romans 16:25 was added to the book of Romans sometime after Acts 28, because they do not believe the "mystery" was revealed until Acts 28 or later.  The Acts 2 and Mid Acts brethren argue that Romans 16:25 was written at the same time as the rest of the book of Romans (i.e. before Acts 28), since they believe Paul was preaching the mystery shortly after his conversion.  I can not prove that Romans 16:25 was written at the same time as the rest of the book of Romans, and I can not prove that Romans 16:25 was added after Acts 28.  For me it does not matter, because although the fact of the "mystery" is manifest or revealed at the time of the writing of Romans 16:25, the details of the mystery are not spelled out in Romans.  It is my belief, based on Romans 1:11 that Paul gave the details of the mystery (i.e. imparted a spiritual gift) sometime after he got to Rome.  Paul says this "spiritual gift" (the mystery and its details) would end up establishing the believers at Rome.  Romans 1:11 states, "For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established..."  In fact Romans 1:11 is a good cross reference to Romans 16:25 where Paul lists several things that would "stablish" the believers at Rome, and one of those things is said to be the "mystery."  When Paul writes Romans 15 Paul indicates that the kingdom salvation for the Gentiles is still in view.  Romans 15:8-12 states:

[8] Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
[9] And that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy; as it is written, For this cause I will confess to thee among the Gentiles, and sing unto thy name.
[10] And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.
[11] And again, Praise the Lord, all ye Gentiles; and laud him, all ye people.
[12] And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust.

Note that Paul makes it clear that Christ's earthly ministry had a twofold purpose.  First, it was to minister to the circumcision (Israel) the truth of God.   Second, after Israel accepted the truth, then Israel would be a witness to the Gentiles of God's truth resulting in the Gentiles accepting God's truth.  Paul does not indicate anywhere in Romans 15 that anything has changed in God's plan to reach Israel, and then to bless the Gentiles.  In fact Paul implies that his own ministry is in accord with what Isaiah said about the Gentiles in that he quotes part of Isaiah 52:15 in Romans 15:20-21. 

     Most of the Acts 2 and Mid Acts brethren try to make Paul a minister preaching the mystery, as defined in Ephesians and Colossians, during all of the Acts period.  However, once you understand what the mystery is, you have to do a lot of twisting and turning to get Paul preaching the mystery before the end of the book of Acts.  In fact in Romans 15:16 Paul actually states what his ministry consisted of during Acts: "That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost."  Note that Paul says he is ministering the "gospel of God" to these Gentiles, and this Gospel of God was not a mystery (see Romans 1:1-3).  The gospel of God is according prophecy and not mystery!  Paul goes on to say in Romans 15:27 that during Acts the Gentiles were partaking of the spiritual things of Israel, and this certainly could not refer to the mystery program Paul speaks of in Ephesians and Colossians.  The mystery made Gentiles equal with the Jews.  Consider how the Gentiles are called "fellowcitizens" (Eph 2:19) and "fellowheirs" (Eph 3:6) under the mystery program.  By definition a "fellow" is an equal, and it is obvious that the Gentiles during the Acts period were not equal.  The gospel, as late as the book of Romans, was still to the Jew first (Rom 1:16).  Under the mystery program the gospel is to all men alike.  Romans even states that the Jews still had an advantage during the Acts period (Romans 3:1).  It is true that Paul did have a distinct gospel during the book of Acts, but Paul does not equate it with the "mystery."  He lists "my gospel" as a separate item from the "mystery" in Romans 16:25.  "Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began..."  Paul's gospel of the uncircumcision was a grace message to the Gentiles in which they did not have to observe the law of Moses (Acts 15:5), but they did have to be observe "necessary thing" in order not to offend the Jews (Acts 15:28-29 & Acts 16:4).  Under the mystery the gospel is still of grace, but the Gentiles no longer have to worry about offending the Jews in meat or drink (Colossians 2:16-17).  

     Based on my study of Acts and Paul's epistles, it is my belief that a better way to divide Paul's early epistles and Acts with his later epistles, is by considering the statements in 1 Corinthians 9:17 and Colossians 1:25-26.  In Acts and Paul's early epistles written before Acts 28, I think we can say based on 1 Corinthians 9:17 "a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me" (i.e. Paul).  Paul preached a gospel message of grace to the Jew first and then to the Greek, with the idea that the Kingdom was still at hand if Israel repented.  This would explain Paul still praying for Israel's national salvation in Romans 10:1.  Since Paul believed Israel would repent and the Kingdom would be setup in the first century, he told the believers at Rome God would bruise Satan "shortly" (Rom 16:20).  With Israel's final rejection of God's message in Acts 28, the kingdom offer is withdrawn.  At some point afterward Paul imparts the details of the mystery.  The "dispensation of the gospel" ends with Israel being set aside in judicial blindness at Acts 28.  The details of another dispensation are given by Paul in Ephesians and Colossians.  The gospel is still one of grace, but it is no longer to the Jew first,the earthly kingdom for Israel is no longer viewed as imminent, and the Jew no longer has an advantage.  This dispensation is called "the mystery" according to Colossians 1:25-26:

[25] Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
[26] Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

This dispensation is also called the dispensation of the grace of God according to Ephesians 3:2.

      The existence of a "mystery" was revealed at the time Romans 16:25 was written.  The time of writing really does not matter, because the details of the mystery were not given and practiced by Paul until Ephesians and Colossians.  Paul's ministry covers two dispensations, the dispensation of the gospel during the book of Acts, and the dispensation of the mystery or the dispensation of the grace of God after Acts 28.

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