Can John 1:17 Refer to the Dispensation of Grace?

      I just finished watching a fairly well known Mid Acts Dispensationalist (I want mention his name, so I can't be accused of trying to use his name to get people to read my blog) speak about errors in study Bibles, and he specifically referenced the 1917 Scofield Study Bible.  One of the so called "serious" errors he pointed out was the Scofield note # 5 at Genesis 1:28.  In that note Scofield lists the name of the different dispensations and gives a Bible reference for each.  This particular Mid Acts Dispensationalist says Scofield is in serious error by listing "Grace" with the Bible reference of John 1:17.  His argument is since the Dispensation of Grace was given to Paul, then John 1:17 could not refer to the Dispensation of Grace.  I don't think I see the "serious error" this brother believes Scofield made.  Scofield says John was written between 85-90 AD.  I personally think this is late, and I would date it before the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD.  As long as John 1:17 was written after Paul received the dispensation of Grace, then there is no error at all with the Scofield note.  Does this brother think that John never knew about the Dispensation of Grace?  Does this brother think Paul was the only one that could write about the Dispensation of Grace?  This brother, like many right dividers, says that our doctrine must only come from Romans through Philemon, and nothing else can be used to form our doctrinal statement.  One finds out very quickly that these particular believers have a serious problem of their own.  It is called inconsistency!

     The above brother I mentioned above who has a problem with John 1:17 referring to the Dispensation of Grace also has a video on "Does one have to be born again during the dispensation of grace?"  This brother's motto of only Romans through Philemon goes straight out the window at this point!  Guess what?  Paul never uses the term "born again!"  You can vainly search Romans through Philemon and the term is not there.  The term "born again" is only used three times in the King James Bible (John 3:3, John 3:7, and 1 Peter 1:23).  If you watch this video, then you will find out from this brother that it is fine to use the term "born again,"  although Paul never does.  In essence the non Pauline book of John is not good enough for this brother at John 1:17 to refer to the dispensation of Grace, but since he likes the term, born again, he will allow the John 3:3 and John 3:7 to apply to the Dispensation of Grace.  As a footnote, I have no problem using the term "born again" in a devotional way to refer to a saved person under Grace, but I would qualify it by saying John 3:3 and 3:7 are doctrinal references to Israel being born again in the future.  I believe a more Scriptural motto for Grace Believers would be, "All Scripture (Genesis to Revelation) is profitable for doctrine as long as it is rightly divided in light of the revelation of the mystery given to Paul in Ephesians and Colossians.