Romans 16:25 Gives No Details of "The Mystery"

      Although I am a dispensationalist, I do not label myself as either Acts 2, Mid Acts, or an Acts 28 Dispensationalist.  For me, I see God's revelation progressing all the way through the book of Acts.  I do not see a good place to "park" anywhere in the book of Acts as far as a "doctrinal boundary" is concerned.  My position is all scripture is profitable for doctrine as 2 Tim 3:16 states.  A "workman" has to rightly divide all scripture, and these divisions are not straight lines like the Acts 2, Mid Acts, or Acts 28ers would have you believe.  Some of the Acts 28ers believe that Romans 16:25 was added to the book of Romans sometime after Acts 28, because they do not believe the "mystery" was revealed until Acts 28 or later.  The Acts 2 and Mid Acts brethren argue that Romans 16:25 was written at the same time as the rest of the book of Romans (i.e. before Acts 28), since they believe Paul was preaching the mystery shortly after his conversion.  I can not prove that Romans 16:25 was written at the same time as the rest of the book of Romans, and I can not prove that Romans 16:25 was added after Acts 28.  For me it does not matter, because although the fact of the "mystery" is manifest or revealed at the time of the writing of Romans 16:25, the details of the mystery are not spelled out in Romans.  It is my belief, based on Romans 1:11 that Paul gave the details of the mystery (i.e. imparted a spiritual gift) sometime after he got to Rome.  Paul says this "spiritual gift" (the mystery and its details) would end up establishing the believers at Rome.  Romans 1:11 states, "For I long to see you, that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift, to the end ye may be established..."  In fact Romans 1:11 is a good cross reference to Romans 16:25 where Paul lists several things that would "stablish" the believers at Rome, and one of those things is said to be the "mystery."  When Paul writes Romans 15 Paul indicates that the kingdom salvation for the Gentiles is still in view.  Romans 15:8-12 states:

[8] Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
[9] And that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy; as it is written, For this cause I will confess to thee among the Gentiles, and sing unto thy name.
[10] And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.
[11] And again, Praise the Lord, all ye Gentiles; and laud him, all ye people.
[12] And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust.

Note that Paul makes it clear that Christ's earthly ministry had a twofold purpose.  First, it was to minister to the circumcision (Israel) the truth of God.   Second, after Israel accepted the truth, then Israel would be a witness to the Gentiles of God's truth resulting in the Gentiles accepting God's truth.  Paul does not indicate anywhere in Romans 15 that anything has changed in God's plan to reach Israel, and then to bless the Gentiles.  In fact Paul implies that his own ministry is in accord with what Isaiah said about the Gentiles in that he quotes part of Isaiah 52:15 in Romans 15:20-21. 

     Most of the Acts 2 and Mid Acts brethren try to make Paul a minister preaching the mystery, as defined in Ephesians and Colossians, during all of the Acts period.  However, once you understand what the mystery is, you have to do a lot of twisting and turning to get Paul preaching the mystery before the end of the book of Acts.  In fact in Romans 15:16 Paul actually states what his ministry consisted of during Acts: "That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost."  Note that Paul says he is ministering the "gospel of God" to these Gentiles, and this Gospel of God was not a mystery (see Romans 1:1-3).  The gospel of God is according prophecy and not mystery!  Paul goes on to say in Romans 15:27 that during Acts the Gentiles were partaking of the spiritual things of Israel, and this certainly could not refer to the mystery program Paul speaks of in Ephesians and Colossians.  The mystery made Gentiles equal with the Jews.  Consider how the Gentiles are called "fellowcitizens" (Eph 2:19) and "fellowheirs" (Eph 3:6) under the mystery program.  By definition a "fellow" is an equal, and it is obvious that the Gentiles during the Acts period were not equal.  The gospel, as late as the book of Romans, was still to the Jew first (Rom 1:16).  Under the mystery program the gospel is to all men alike.  Romans even states that the Jews still had an advantage during the Acts period (Romans 3:1).  It is true that Paul did have a distinct gospel during the book of Acts, but Paul does not equate it with the "mystery."  He lists "my gospel" as a separate item from the "mystery" in Romans 16:25.  "Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began..."  Paul's gospel of the uncircumcision was a grace message to the Gentiles in which they did not have to observe the law of Moses (Acts 15:5), but they did have to be observe "necessary thing" in order not to offend the Jews (Acts 15:28-29 & Acts 16:4).  Under the mystery the gospel is still of grace, but the Gentiles no longer have to worry about offending the Jews in meat or drink (Colossians 2:16-17).  

     Based on my study of Acts and Paul's epistles, it is my belief that a better way to divide Paul's early epistles and Acts with his later epistles, is by considering the statements in 1 Corinthians 9:17 and Colossians 1:25-26.  In Acts and Paul's early epistles written before Acts 28, I think we can say based on 1 Corinthians 9:17 "a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me" (i.e. Paul).  Paul preached a gospel message of grace to the Jew first and then to the Greek, with the idea that the Kingdom was still at hand if Israel repented.  This would explain Paul still praying for Israel's national salvation in Romans 10:1.  Since Paul believed Israel would repent and the Kingdom would be setup in the first century, he told the believers at Rome God would bruise Satan "shortly" (Rom 16:20).  With Israel's final rejection of God's message in Acts 28, the kingdom offer is withdrawn.  At some point afterward Paul imparts the details of the mystery.  The "dispensation of the gospel" ends with Israel being set aside in judicial blindness at Acts 28.  The details of another dispensation are given by Paul in Ephesians and Colossians.  The gospel is still one of grace, but it is no longer to the Jew first,the earthly kingdom for Israel is no longer viewed as imminent, and the Jew no longer has an advantage.  This dispensation is called "the mystery" according to Colossians 1:25-26:

[25] Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
[26] Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints:

This dispensation is also called the dispensation of the grace of God according to Ephesians 3:2.

      The existence of a "mystery" was revealed at the time Romans 16:25 was written.  The time of writing really does not matter, because the details of the mystery were not given and practiced by Paul until Ephesians and Colossians.  Paul's ministry covers two dispensations, the dispensation of the gospel during the book of Acts, and the dispensation of the mystery or the dispensation of the grace of God after Acts 28.

10 Practical Lessons on the Christian Life

 

"To the Jew First" is According to Prophecy not Mystery

      Many of the Mid Acts Dispensational position are critical of the Acts 2 Dispensational position, because Acts 2 Dispensationalists mix prophecy (i.e. the events on the Day of Pentecost) with the Mystery Program.  I have no problem with this accusation, because it is true that Acts 2 Dispensationalists mix prophecy with mystery.  My problem is I see the Mid Acts position also mixing prophecy and mystery.  For example, the practice by Paul of "to the Jew first," in the book of Acts is according to prophecy and not the mystery, yet the Mid Acts proponents insist the mystery starts at either Acts 9 or Acts 13 at the latest.  It is evident is studying the Old Testament prophets that Israel was to get saved first, and then they were to be a witness to the Gentiles.  

For example, Isaiah 60:1-3 states:

[1] Arise, shine; for thy light is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee.
[2] For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee.
[3] And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising.

When the Mid Acts proponents are confronted with this, many will say that this practice of "to the Jew first" was just transitory during the early part of the book of Acts.  My question would be, What if an Acts 2 Dispensationalist argues that the things happening on the Day of Pentecost in Acts 2 were transitory during the early part of the book of Acts? Would the Mid Acts proponent accept this explanation?  My guess, based on studying Mid Acts Dispensationalism, is they would not accept this explanation from an Acts 2 Dispensationalist.

For the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, he has another problem in that "to the Jew first" was not just during the early part of the book of Acts.  It was all the way to Acts 28!  Right before Paul got to Rome he writes,  "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" (Romans 1:16).

     In conclusion, I would argue that the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, in order to be consistent has two or at most 3 options.  First, he has the option of allowing the Acts 2 Dispensationalists to use the same explanation as the Mid Acts Dispensationalist, "Acts is a transitional book" for an excuse to mix prophecy and mystery.  A second option proposed by a few Mid Acts people would be to argue that during Acts both the prophecy program and mystery program ran concurrently all the way to the end of Acts when Israel is set aside in judicial blindness in Acts 28:25-31.  Some refer to option 2 as the "overlap position."  If the Mid Acts Dispensationalists rejects both options one and two,  then he must concede that the details of the mystery are not revealed until after Acts 28.

It is Time to Drop the Slogan "Romans through Philemon"

      Many "Grace Believers" claim their mail and doctrine is only found in the books of Romans through Philemon.  I have in the past shared this sentiment, but I no longer agree with using this slogan.  Why?  I am going to answer the question with a question.  Did the Apostle Paul say that the Grace Believers' mail and doctrine was only in Romans through Philemon?

Paul says in 2 Timothy 3:

[16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: [17] That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Note that Paul does not chant off the slogan "Romans through Philemon."  Paul says all scripture is profitable for doctrine, etc.  All scripture is Genesis through Revelation!  As Grace Believers all the Bible is our mail, and we have to study and rightly divide all of it to determine what applies doctrinally to us under the mystery program.  

     In considering this matter, take the Gospel of John for an example.  Many Grace Believers say John is not my mail, because it is not in "Romans through Philemon."  I understand that John contains much "kingdom doctrine" that does not line up with the dispensation of grace; however, there are some truths in John that match the preaching of Paul.  John 20:31 states, " But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name."  Many Grace Believers will read this verse and say John is "Jewish," since it is talking about believing Jesus is Christ.  This argument is their proof that John is not for them.  The strangest thing happens when these same people read Acts 18:5.  It states, "And when Silas and Timotheus were come from Macedonia, Paul was pressed in the spirit, and testified to the Jews that Jesus was Christ."  At this point these same people, who claim the "mystery" started in Acts 9 or at the latest Acts 13, make excuses for Paul preaching the same thing John preached!  If John 20 is not for Grace Believers because it is speaking about believing that Jesus is the Christ, then Acts 18 can not be for Grace Believers either because it is the same message!  Keep in mind Paul not only used the title, "Christ" in Acts but he used the title numerous times in Romans through Philemon!  John 20:31 not only states to believe Jesus is the "Christ," but it also states to believe Jesus is "the Son of God."  As a Grace Believer I can take this part of John and doctrinally apply it to me!  The title, "Son of God" definitely matches the revelation of the mystery doctrine.  Ephesians 4:13 states, "Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:"  John 20:31 also makes it clear that believing results in spiritual life.  This doctrinal truth also matches mystery doctrine, for 2 Timothy 1:1 states, "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, according to the promise of life which is in Christ Jesus."

     For those Grace Believers who still hold to the slogan, "Romans through Philemon," I would encourage you to start following Paul (rather than your favorite Grace Teacher/Preacher) in that All Scripture is Profitable for doctrine, etc.  Once you start studying and rightly dividing all Scripture, you will find there is much doctrine for the Grace Believer outside of Romans through Philemon.  Yes, doing this will require much more time studying and less time in worldly entertainment, but it is what God requires under Grace!

Lessons From Judas Iscariot

 

“Lessons from Judas Iscariot”

Text:  John 6:70-71 states:

[70] Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? [71] He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being one of the twelve.

 

I.                     Introduction

A.      Judas Iscariot is probably best known as the disciple that betrayed Jesus

B.      There are several false ideas and teachings based on Judas Iscariot

C.      There is an interesting hypothesis that Judas will come back in the future 7 Year Tribulation as the “Antichrist”

II.                   Lessons from Judas Iscariot

A.       Judas is not an example of a believer losing salvation, for he was never saved to begin with.  Jesus referred to him in the present tense as “a devil.”  John 6:70 states, “…Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?”  Judas did not become a devil after sinning, but he was one from the beginning!

B.      Some use Matthew 26:24, which states, (“The Son of man goeth as it is written of him: but woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born”) to falsely teach Judas had no “freewill” in betraying Christ, since this event was prophesied.  Some in doing this imply that Judas’ betrayal of Jesus was God’s fault.  In considering Matthew 26:24 keep in mind the following:

1.       God is able to accomplish His will in the fact that He foreknows what man will do in his freewill.  Acts 2:22-23 states: “[22] Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: [23] Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:”

2.       The blame for Judas’ action is to be placed on his wicked heat (John 13:1-2) and his willingness to be used of Satan (Luke 22:1-3).

C.      Judas’ was willing to be used of Satan because his heart was concerned with material things rather than spiritual things.  Consider the following:

1.       Judas complained that costly ointment was “wasted on Jesus” rather than be sold.  John 12:4-6 states: “[4] Then saith one of his disciples, Judas Iscariot, Simon's son, which should betray him, [5] Why was not this ointment sold for three hundred pence, and given to the poor?  [6] This he said, not that he cared for the poor; but because he was a thief, and had the bag, and bare what was put therein.”

2.       After Judas complains about the ointment above Matthew 26:14-16 states: “[14] Then one of the twelve, called Judas Iscariot, went unto the chief priests, [15] And said unto them, What will ye give me, and I will deliver him unto you? And they covenanted with him for thirty pieces of silver. [16] And from that time he sought opportunity to betray him.

3.       Judas’ main motivation in being a “disciple” was for material wealth and not spiritual wealth!

D.      Judas is a prime example of the fact that having “power” to perform miracles does not necessarily equate with being “of God.”  Matthew 10:5-8 states that Judas along with the other 11 disciples had power to heal the sick and raise the dead!

E.       Judas is also proof that “partaking of Christ” in the “Lord’s Supper” does not equate with salvation.  Matthew 26:17-27 speaks of the supper and verse 20 makes it perfectly clear that Judas also was a partaker.  It would be rightly assumed that Judas was also water baptized, since that was what was required to be a disciple during Christ’ earthly ministry, yet that did not save Judas either!

F.       The preaching of Jesus and his disciples was concerning the gospel of the Kingdom, and this kingdom would have been realized if Israel had “received it.”  Judas, of course, wanted the material blessings of a kingdom, but rejected the spiritual blessings that it offered. 

1.        Matthew 11:13-14 states: “[13] For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. [14] And if ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come.  According to prophecy Elijah was to come before the Kingdom would be set up.

2.       Prophecy also spoke of an “Antichrist” that would come on the world scene before the kingdom would be setup.  Whoever this “Antichrist” is, will have control over the finances of the world.  Revelation 13:17 states, “And that no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark, or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.”

G.      What about the hypothesis that states Judas Iscariot is the “Antichrist?”  Are there any valid Biblical arguments for this?

1.       This future “Antichrist” is called the “son of perdition according to 2 Thes. 2:3

2.       Jesus referred to Judas as the “son of perdition” in John 17:12. It states, “While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.”

3.       If Israel had repented during the earthly ministry of Christ, then the “son of perdition” (Judas Iscariot) was certainly there on the scene.

4.       Israel of course rejected the Kingdom and had Jesus crucified.  Jesus’ prayer on the cross (Luke 23:34) bought Israel another opportunity to receive the Kingdom in early Acts.  The Kingdom was rejected again with Israel’s stoning of Stephen in Acts 7.  Stephen prayed a prayer (Acts 7:60) similar to Christ on the cross, and as a result Stephen bought Israel more time to receive the Kingdom (until Acts 28).

5.       In Acts 28 the Kingdom is preached to Israel one last time by Paul to the “chief Jews,” but the message is rejected for a final time.   

6.       With Israel’s rejection of the Kingdom message in Acts 28, the Kingdom is put on hold as well as the coming of the “Antichrist.” 

7.       At some point in the future, the mystery dispensation will end with the rapture, and God will again give Israel another opportunity to receive the Kingdom during the tribulation period. 

8.       The “Antichrist” (also called the beast) will ascend out of the bottomless pit during the tribulation in an attempt to thwart God’s plan of the Kingdom.  Some believe that this “Antichrist” will be a return of Judas Iscariot based on:

a.       When Judas died the Bible says he went to his “own place.” (see Acts 1:16-25)

b.       Revelation 17:8 describes the beast (Antichrist) as someone that lived in the past, but died, and yet will come up out of the bottomless pit.  This description could certainly fit Judas Iscariot. 

III.                  Conclusion

A.      Judas is an example of a false believer who only “followed” Jesus for what he could get materially.  Judas had no interest in the spiritual things of God.

B.      There are some strong arguments to indicate that Judas may literally return in the future in the person of the Antichrist/Beast.  The question of Judas being or not being the Antichrist is a very interesting study, but one’s answer to the question is not one to break fellowship over.