Acts 28:28 in the King James Bible states, "Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it." Note that "is sent" is present tense. In other words the sending of the salvation of God unto the Gentiles without Israel was happening at Acts 28.
In C.R. Stam's commentary on Acts he changes the verb tense of Acts 28:28 from "is sent" to "has been sent." See the copy of the page from his commentary below:
Why would C.R. Stam change the verb tense at Acts 28:28? Also why have I not seen any KJV Defenders of the Acts 2 Dispensational persuasion or KJV Defenders of the Mid Acts Dispensational persuasion call him out on changing the text of King James Bible. It appears to me that C.R. Stam changes the verb tense because as the KJV text stands at Acts 28:28, it teaches a dispensational change takes place at Acts 28:28 (present tense "is") concerning Gentile salvation totally apart from Israel, and not earlier! My guess as to why the KJV defenders, whether Acts 2 or Mid Acts, do not call out Stam on this, is because they do not believe a dispensational change takes place at Acts 28:28. They all believe the change takes place earlier in the past tense. The Acts 2 crowd will say the dispensational change is at Acts 2. The Mid Acts crowd, in giving themselves more "wiggle room" (I have seen Mid Acts theology range from Acts 7 to Acts 19) say the dispensational change is Mid Acts.
At Acts 28:28 the salvation of God is sent to the Gentiles totally apart from Israel. Stam tries to imply that this had already been going on before Acts 28:28, but that is simply not true. Up until Acts 28:28 Gentiles either had to become proselytes (as in early Acts) in order to get the salvation of God, or they had to wait until the Jew first got a chance to hear the gospel, and then afterwards the salvation of God could be sent to them (see Romans 1:16). Please note that I did not say the Body of Christ starts at Acts 28:28 as most Acts 28 Dispensationalists teach. The Body of Christ exists before Acts 28:28. In fact I think the Body of Christ was probably formed at the cross, and was revealed to Paul during his Acts ministry. The Body of Christ experiences a variety of dispensational rule changes as the gospel goes from the Jew only to the Jew first in the book of Acts. As has been stated in prior posts, After Acts 28 the Gentile believers not only receive the salvation of God apart from Israel, but they also become "fellow" citizens and heirs. In other words the Gentiles become equal, and the Jew is no longer first after Acts 28.
As a King James Bible believer, my dispensational position is not traditional Acts 2, traditional Mid Acts or traditional Acts 28. I think all these positions have some things correct, but I can not fully join any of these camps, because they all at times deviate from the text of the God honored King James Bible. I remain a Bible Believer first, and a Dispensationalist second.
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